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Re: THEORY: unergative

From:Joe <joe@...>
Date:Sunday, February 22, 2004, 15:47
Doug Dee wrote:

>In a message dated 2/22/2004 2:57:08 AM Eastern Standard Time, >herodote92@YAHOO.COM writes: > > > >>2/ But there are languages, like Basque, various >>Caucasian langs and others, using another way : >>By-me shot the sheriff >>*me* being in ergative case, and *the sheriff* in >>absolutive >>What conception does such a form reflect ? I think I >>understand it as : "There was some sheriff-shooting, >>and that was done by me". Maybe I'm wrong ? >> >> > >I think it's potentially misleading to use the term "conception" here. There >is no reason to believe that Basque speakers "conceive" of the proposition "I >shot the sherriff" any differently than English speakers do. Their grammar >just marks things differently. > > >
Well, if the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis is correct, they do concieve it differently. Not that I'm saying it is. But it's a possibility.

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Philippe Caquant <herodote92@...>