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Re: USAGE: WOMYN (was: RE: [CONLANG] Optimum numberofsymbols,though mostly talking about french now

From:And Rosta <a-rosta@...>
Date:Tuesday, May 28, 2002, 20:45
> And Rosta wrote: > > If I read you correctly, you're reiterating my points here. > > Then perhaps I misread you. I was under the impression that you were > analyzing woman as a prefix wo- added to the noun man, whereas I'm > saying that, if it's to be analyzed as a compound at all, it would be a > word wo with the *suffix* -man, because it acts more like that suffix > than the independent noun _man_, namely, pronounced /m@n/ as opposed to > /m&n/.
These, though different, are subtypes of the same thing, judging by their similar semantics, their common orthography in singular and plural, their shared absense of -s plural, and the perceptions of the average user (-man terms are commonly perceived as sexist, even when the morph involved is clearly your 'suffix' sort). I was arguing only that _woman_ was wo+man, whatever {man} is, and not a single morpheme.
> At any rate, I personally suspect there's no one true analysis. A word > like that may very well be considered as a compound by some speakers and > as a single morpheme by others.
I think I said that too in the post you were replying to? So we can conclude with this point of agreement. --And.