Re: THEORY: Allophones
| From: | Tom Wier <artabanos@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, April 6, 1999, 3:58 |
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FFlores wrote:
> Is there any natlang or conlang where an allophone
> of a certain phoneme is also an allophone (maybe the
> only one) of *another* phoneme? Do you think that's
> likely or probable?
It's not just probable. Take American English, for example.
If either /t/ or /d/ occur intervocalicly, then both become the
voiced flap, as in American "better" or "rudder".
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Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
ICQ#: 4315704 AIM: Deuterotom
Website: <http://www.angelfire.com/tx/eclectorium/>
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."
There's nothing particularly wrong with the
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