Re: articles

Hi!

"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> writes:
>...
> Now, such marking makes logical sense to me; I can understand why it
> would be innovated.  But *in*definity marking, like English "a(n)", I don't
> grok at all.  Virtually every use of the indefinite article can
> be replaced by either nothing or the number "one" without changing the
> meaning.  So how did the indefinite article develop?  And what did it
> develop from?
Simply from 'one' I suppose.  In German, there's no difference.

**Henrik