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Re: articles

From:Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>
Date:Sunday, January 30, 2005, 19:41
Hi!

"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> writes:
>... > Now, such marking makes logical sense to me; I can understand why it > would be innovated. But *in*definity marking, like English "a(n)", I don't > grok at all. Virtually every use of the indefinite article can > be replaced by either nothing or the number "one" without changing the > meaning. So how did the indefinite article develop? And what did it > develop from?
Simply from 'one' I suppose. In German, there's no difference. **Henrik