Re: YAEPT: uu/ii (< Quick Latin pronunciation question)

Huh?? How does "tempus" demonstrate your "overriding" rule?  I'm
completely lost.



On 5/27/08, Eugene Oh <un.doing@...> wrote:
> On Tue, May 27, 2008 at 10:51 PM, caeruleancentaur
> <caeruleancentaur@...> wrote:
>
>> In the first declension, overwhelmingly feminine, there are a few
>> masculine words, e.g., "poeta," poet.  The plural is the normal -ae of
>> the first declension, "poetae," not the -i of the second.
>>
>> By analogy, wouldn't the hypothetical plural of "virus," even though
>> neuter, be the "viri" of the second declension?  Why would a third
>> declension ending, "vira," be introduced?
>>
>
> There is an overriding rule in Latin that all neuter nominatives,
> accusatives and vocatives end in -um in the singular and -a in the
> plural, whichever declension pattern they belong to. Hence oppidum,
> oppida; tempus, tempora; opus, opera; animal, animalia; etc.
>
> This is different from the other two genders, which occur in
> practically all other declensions: poeta, nauta, domus, manus, etc.
>
> Eugene
>
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Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>