Gary Shannon wrote:
> Random observation:
>
> When the two objects of a verb are reversed, a preposition is inserted in front
> of the second object, as in "I gave you money. => I gave money TO you." But
> which preposition does the verb imply when it is left out? It seems to depend
> on the verb:
>
> John wrote a letter TO Mary. => John wrote Mary a letter.
> John wrote a letter FOR Mary.
> John wrote a letter ABOUT Mary.
>
> John threw a bone TO the dog. => John threw the dog a bone.
> John threw a bone AT the dog.
> John threw a bone FOR the dog.
>
> John bought a dog FOR Mary. => John bought Mary a dog.
> John bought a dog FROM Mary.
>
> John paid a dollar TO Mary. => John paid Mary a dollar.
> John paid a dollar FOR Mary.
>
> The preference seems to be for the verb to imply "TO" if possible, and if "TO"
> is not allowed, to imply "FOR".
That's the infamous dative shift: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dative_shift
K.