Re: Noun Cases
From: | H. S. Teoh <hsteoh@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, March 2, 2004, 12:32 |
On Tue, Mar 02, 2004 at 07:22:54AM +0100, takatunu wrote:
> John Cowan <cowan@...> wrote:
> <<<<
> The distinction, when it is made (not always), is that "why?" asks for the
> material cause of something, but "wherefore?" asks for the final cause:
> the purpose or justification.
> <<<<
[...]
Cool, thanks for the description, which is just what I need in the
Ebisédian grammar. :-) In Ebisédian, the distinction is made using the
case of the interrogative noun. E.g.:
gh0' kele? - Why did this happen? (What caused this?)
interrog-ORG pro-v
ghu' kele? - Wherefore did this happen? (To what end
interrog-RCP pro-v did this happen?)
There is also a third distinction using the instrumental case:
gha' kele? - How (by what means) did this happen?
interrog-INSTR pro-v
T
--
The right half of the brain controls the left half of the body. This means
that only left-handed people are in their right mind. -- Manoj Srivastava