Re: "to be" and not to be in the world's languages
| From: | Philip Newton <philip.newton@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, March 27, 2006, 14:00 |
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On 3/22/06, Rob Haden <magwich78@...> wrote:
> Slavic languages typically don't have "to be" in the present tense.
Is this really typical?
I know that Russian doesn't have "to be" in the present tense, but
Polish and Czech do. I'm fairly sure Bulgarian and Serbian do as well.
Maybe Russian is the odd one out and the "typical" behaviour for
Slavic languages *is* to have a present-tense "to be"?
Cheers,
--
Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
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