Re: ANADEWism? interrogative mood

On Wed, 22 Dec 2004 14:10:25 -0500, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote:
> On Wed, Dec 22, 2004 at 07:58:26PM +0100, Philip Newton wrote:
>> (Klingon has -'a', but that's not a natlang.)
>
> Plus it's arguably a particle rather than an inflection, Klingon being
> agglutinative and all.  :)
Well, the English interrogative is described as an interrogative mood, but
it's analytic rather than inflectional: "someone acts" [indic.] vs. "does
someone act?" [interrog.]

_Describing Morphosyntax_ gives the example of Tibetan where the marker
for a declarative sentence is opposed to the marker for an interrogative:

    yoqöö mOOmOO sEEp@ree
    "the servant ate dumplings" (-ree = declarative marker)

    yoqöö mOOmOO sEEp@repEE
    "did the servant eat dumplings?" (-repEE = interrogative marker)

    yoqöö qhare sEEp@rEE
    "what did the servant eat?" (-rEE = another interrogative marker)

But Payne does not consider the category of speech act (declarative,
interrogative, etc.) to be in the same category as mood, so even if
this be a mode proper [not enough info from the examples to tell] he
wouldn't call it such.

	*Muke!
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