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Re: ANADEWism? interrogative mood

From:Muke Tever <hotblack@...>
Date:Wednesday, December 22, 2004, 19:44
On Wed, 22 Dec 2004 14:10:25 -0500, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote:
> On Wed, Dec 22, 2004 at 07:58:26PM +0100, Philip Newton wrote: >> (Klingon has -'a', but that's not a natlang.) > > Plus it's arguably a particle rather than an inflection, Klingon being > agglutinative and all. :)
Well, the English interrogative is described as an interrogative mood, but it's analytic rather than inflectional: "someone acts" [indic.] vs. "does someone act?" [interrog.] _Describing Morphosyntax_ gives the example of Tibetan where the marker for a declarative sentence is opposed to the marker for an interrogative: yoqöö mOOmOO sEEp@ree "the servant ate dumplings" (-ree = declarative marker) yoqöö mOOmOO sEEp@repEE "did the servant eat dumplings?" (-repEE = interrogative marker) yoqöö qhare sEEp@rEE "what did the servant eat?" (-rEE = another interrogative marker) But Payne does not consider the category of speech act (declarative, interrogative, etc.) to be in the same category as mood, so even if this be a mode proper [not enough info from the examples to tell] he wouldn't call it such. *Muke! -- website: LiveJournal: deviantArt: FrathWiki, a conlang and conculture wiki:


Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>