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OT: /x\/

From:R A Brown <ray@...>
Date:Thursday, December 13, 2007, 17:51
Benct Philip Jonsson wrote:
> Paul Roser skrev:
> > When I was learning German many years ago my pronunciation > > of <ch> was a very scrapy uvular fricative, verging on a > > voiceless uvular trill - would that be acceptable in > > Swedish, or would it attract odd looks?
> > (And if any of our resident Welsh speakers are reading > > this, would it be acceptable for Welsh <ch>?
No - Welsh _ch_ is [X]. But anglophones with Welsh as L2 often use [x].
> And what is > > the distinction between that and the voiceless uvular > > trill realization of <rh> in Northern Wales?) > > I don't *know*, but probably the _ch_ is untrilled.
Indeed it is. Whereas _rh_ both north and south is trilled /r/ with concomitant aspiration (we've discussed several times before on this list whether this is a question of devoicing the /r/ with aspiration being secondary or of aspirating the /r/ with devoicing being secondary. I think the general consensus at the end of these repeated threads has been that it's basically the same thing :) Usually AFAIK in both parts of Wales the /r/ is trilled apically, but in some areas in north Wales the uvular trill is indeed used. Sure, a uvular trill with aspiration will be a voiceless, aspirated uvular _trill_ - it will, however, not be an untrilled [X]. -- Ray ================================== ================================== Entia non sunt multiplicanda praeter necessitudinem.