dirk elzinga wrote:
> ?!!! I've read this numerous times now, and I still don't know
> why aspirated consonants are invoked. The <d> in 'product' is
> not aspirated.
I don't understand that part either.
> It only ends a syllable orthographically and not
> phonologically (pace ambisyllabicity supporters), and then
> apparently only in North America.
Why doesn't the [d] in product belong to the first syllable,
O resident phonologist?
--
There is / one art || John Cowan <jcowan@...>
no more / no less || http://www.reutershealth.com
to do / all things || http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
with art- / lessness \\ -- Piet Hein