Past & future( was: Romula: tense system - request for comments)
From: | Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...> |
Date: | Sunday, January 9, 2000, 10:59 |
At 6:42 pm -0500 8/1/00, Nik Taylor wrote:
>Raymond Brown wrote:
[...]
>> Yes, particularly if you stray into the odd by-ways and find things like a
>> preterite in Catalan formed by 'to go' + infinitive. So that we, e.g. :
>> vaig trobar un amic = I met a friend
>> BUT
>> vaig a trobar un amic = I am going to meet a friend :)
>
>Interesting! Do any forms of "to go" end in an {a},
Yes, 3rd person sing. _va_
>if so, how would
>_va a_ (or whatever) be distinguished from _va_?
Good question. How does one distinguish
'va a tancar la finestra' (he is going to close the window)
from
'va tancar la finestra' (he closed the window) ?
I don't know. Maybe a lengthened /a/ - maybe context??
I understand the 'anar a' + infin. is not used as an alternative for the
future as seems often the case in French; IIRC it tends to be used when
motion is actually implied, i.e. we expect now to see him move over to the
window & close it.
I have read how 'vaig tancar' (literally: I go to-close) came to be used as
aperiphrasis for the preterite, but I'm afraid I've forgotten the
explanation. But it remains a peculiarity of Catalan. However, 'go' used
a the preterite auxiliary has obviously come to be felt to be different
from the full verb 'anar'; cf. the present of 'anar' and the auxiliary:
PRESENT OF "ANAR" (to go) PRETERITE AUXILIARY
vaig vaig
vas vas (_or_ vares)
va va
anem vam (_or_ vàrem)
aneu vau (_or_ vàreu)
van van (_or_ varen)
-----------------------------------------------------------
It seems strange to us who use 'go' differently that a preterite auxiliary
could have evolved from 'to go'. But I'm reminded that "I'm after meeting
her" has very different meanings in different dialects of English this side
of the pond; to some it refers to the past (i.e. 'I have met her') and to
others it has a future meaning ('I want to meet her'/ 'I am trying to meet
her').
"I'm after meeting her" has long been noted in Irish English & in some
Scots varieties as meaning "I have met her"; it reflects the use of 'after'
plus the verb-noun in Gaelic. (BTW exectly the samr construction is used in
Welsh but AFAIK the construction does in occur in AngloWelsh.)
When I returned to the south east of England just over 10 years ago after
my 22 years sojourn in Wales, I was surprised to hear people saying things
like "I'm after meeting her". I simply do not recall hearing such phrases
before I left the south east. At first I assumed they were past in meaning
like the Celtic forms, but soon learnt that they had future meanings!
Strange.
I wonder if it is more common than I thought that phrases or forms one
language or dialect uses for the past has a future meaning in a related
language or dialect.
Ray.
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A mind which thinks at its own expense
will always interfere with language.
[J.G. Hamann 1760]
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