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Proto-Latin or Italic

From:Mike Adams <abrigon@...>
Date:Monday, September 4, 2000, 7:54
I wonder how much of the pre-Roman lingos had to influences the
classical into vulgar, and then into the seperate lingos.. I know much
if Italy even after the end of the Roman empire still had residuals of
the pre-Roman Italic lingos..
So was the changes really a shift, or was it the locals trying to shape
vulgar latin to their own dielect or lingo, so therefore in ways vulgar
latin in the area was more a creole/pidgin, than became the new lingo,
post-roman romance lingo?


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