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Re: Does this noun system break ANADEWism?

From:paul-bennett <paul-bennett@...>
Date:Tuesday, January 13, 2004, 14:23
On Tue, 13 Jan 2004 12:40:22  0000 Peter Bleackley
<Peter.Bleackley@...> wrote.
>There exists one case which expresses the subject of an intransitive >sentence, the object of an transitive sentence, and the indirect object of >a ditransitive sentence. Another case expresses the subject of a transitive >sentence or the object of a ditransitive sentence. A third case expresses >the subject of a ditransitive sentence.
Thus? S(case 1) V A(case 2) V P(case 1) A(case 3) V DO(case 2) IO(case 1) I can't see it surviving very long in the wild. My guess is that it isn't found in nature, but I'd be very happy to be proven wrong. On further inspection, it *could* be the form manifested if the phrase was natively understood as a kind of causative construction, with inherently passive verbs like "is given to" instead of "gives (to)". A(case 3) ( DO(case 2) V IO(case 1) ) Even then, I suspect IO would take case 2, and DO would take case 1. OTOH, I can see the following surviving... S(case 1) V A(case 2) V P(case 1) A(case 2) V DO(case 3) IO(case 1) This is a combination dechticaetiative and ergative pattern, which I think relies on animacy for default case marking. I suspect there'd be some kind of "antiditransitive" voice for monotransitive sentences with low-animacy Ps. Paul