Re: THEORY: Languages divided by politics and religion

Jonathan Chang wrote:
>     True after the Civil War, but not so certain that afterwards into the
> presentday
> - what with British pressure to "democratize," the pressures to compete on
> the global level capitalistically & culturally, etc.
After several generations, sure, but by that point, animosity might've
decreased between the North and the South.  But, I'd doubt that there'd
be much equality, after all, in our timeline it wasn't until the 60's
that there was a civil rights movement.  I could picture the North in
this alternate timeline having a similar civil rights movement, but I'd
imagine the South would be delayed by at least a couple of decades.  I'm
sure that slavery itself probably would've been legally abolished
shortly after the Civil War due to British pressure [in Harry
Turtledove's "The Great War: American Front", this occurred in the
1880's], but it would probably be largely a nominal freedom, the
ex-slaves remaining disenfranchised and in a sort of _de facto_ slavery.

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