Re: inalienable possession
|From:||Didier Willis <dwillis@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, November 18, 1998, 18:44|
Nik Taylor wrote:
> > Couldn't it be in some natlangs the origin of their cases? I've
> > read somewhere that prepositions came often from others nouns or
> > verbs.
> > Imagine the evolution: verbs->pre-postpositions->case endings (or
> > beginnings).
> Almost always verbs --> postpositions --> case-endings. It's
> probably quite common, I don't know of any examples, but that
> process would probably take a long time, so it's not surprising
> that there'd be no known examples. We know of
> verbs --> adpositions, and postpositions --> case-endings.
> For example: the English verbs "concern" had the participle
> "concerning", which is now a preposition. Mandarin Chinese
> uses the verb "give" as a preposition marking indirect object.
Oops... In Almaqerin I used the following evolution:
case endings --> suffixes --> postpositions --> prepositions
The switch from postpositions to prepositions is a feature
of Almaqerin, whereas the 'brother' language Sitarwelas
case endings --> suffixes / postpositions
(suffixes are still bound to the noun, but do not decline
I thought that "case endings" were very ancient features in
(real) languages, and that the evolution I adopted would look
quite natural. Perhaps that's not the case?