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Re: THEORY: phonemics (was: RE: [CONLANG] Optimum

From:Mike S. <mcslason@...>
Date:Friday, May 31, 2002, 16:27
Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> wrote:

>"Mike S." wrote: >> To use my own idiolect as an example, assume for a moment that >> although I never say [?] for intervocalic /t/, I also never fail >> to hear [?] for intervocalic /t/ when pronounced that way by >> others. For my own idiolect, would you say that [?] is part of >> the intervocalic phoneme /t/ for my idiolect (even though I never >> say it), or no it isn't (even though I always hear it)? > >But, is that really a part of the phoneme /t/?
That's the $64,000 question :-)
>I'd consider that simply >part of your knowledge of other accents. The first time I heard that >usage, I didn't know what they were saying, it was only later that I >learned that was the way they pronounced /t/ in some dialects. Since I >have no [?] in my dialect (except sometimes before word-initial vowels), >there was no chance of confusing their [?] with anything in my dialect, >thus, it was an easy thing to learn. But, I certainly don't preserve it >as being /t/.
That sounds reasonable. I'll wait to see if there are other opinions before I make up my mind though. Regards