Re: THEORY: Evolution of infixes/ablaut?
From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
Date: | Thursday, March 16, 2000, 6:46 |
Eric Christopherson wrote:
> I'm really fascinated by the idea but I
> can't figure out how the mind would allow a morpheme to be modified from
> the inside -- just seems like morphemes "should" be concrete, unbreakable
> elements to me. It's a bias in my conlanging instinct I guess :)
I'm not sure either, perhaps it's just spontaneous or something. After
all, colloquial vulgar English uses infixes quite frequently, as in
abso-f***ing-lutely, or a line I read somewhere "Down in
Tumba-bloody-rumba shooting kanga-bloody-roos"
Perhaps sometimes it's simple metathesis. Suppose that the plural infix
was -l-, placed before the final consonant. Well, it could've been that
at an earlier stage it was a suffix -l, and forms like, say, _pakl_
became _palk_. That's just a guess, tho, and couldn't explain all
infixes, either.
Another guess is that perhaps it started with only some words. For
instance, Tagalog had an infix -um- placed after the first consonant. I
can't remember what the meaning is, tho. Anyhoo, maybe (and this is
only a guess) it started with only some words, wherein the first
consonant was a now-unproductive prefix, so that the -um- was, in fact,
merely a closer prefix. Perhaps the old prefix was reanalyzed as part
of the root, and then -um- was generalized to all words, regardless of
whether they historically began with a prefix.
--
"If the stars should appear one night in a thousand years, how would men
believe and adore, and preserve for many generations the remembrance of
the city of God!" - Ralph Waldo Emerson
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