Re: THEORY: Evolution of infixes/ablaut?

Steg Belsky wrote:
> Would the splitting of the word "another" into "a - nother" (instead of
> "an - other") in the phrase "a whole nother" be infixing, or just
> reanalysis of which word the /n/ belongs to?
The second, I think.  I know that for me, it's most definitely "a
nother", that is /@nVDr=/; "an other" would be pronounced /&nVDr=/; in
fact, I've found myself using "an other" one or two times, most recently
when I was doing a graph for my mother's work (she's the medical records
manager at a nursing home), a graph of injuries, divided into "falls",
"bruises", "skin tears" and "others".  Anyhoo, I said to myself on one
(I had to count it up before plugging the data in) "a bruise and an
other".

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