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Re: Conciseness

From:Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Wednesday, June 9, 2004, 5:32
On Tuesday, June 8, 2004, at 06:37 , Mark P. Line wrote:

> Joe said:
[snip]
>> Yes, but those are pronominal arguments. I probably should have made >> myself clearer.
Yep - you should ;)
>> A morpheme doesn't have to, but a word does. Although, come to think of >> it, it doesn't acutally have to be the nucleus... > > > A *phonological* word has to have at least one syllable, but it could > easily map to three or more grammatical words. Morphemes represented by a > single segment or by suprasegmental processes will tend to be from closed > classes, so the point you're trying to make is probably that open-class > morphemes will almost always have at least one syllable and
The "almost always" rightly IMO sounds a note of caution, therefore....
> that therefore > a prototypical simple transitive clause constructed from open-class > morphemes will have at least three syllables.
I think "will generally have" might be better.
> I think that's probably a fair assumption, although there are languages > with subsyllabic open-class morphemes -- and at least one of them could > probably manage to provide a simple transitive clause with open-class > morphemes that has less than three syllables. So saying that such clauses > can't really exist is probably overstated, strictly speaking.
I think so. IME I've found generalizations like "..a simple sentence - verb, subject, and object, can't really be expressed with less than three syllables" tend not to be watertight. If we're talking about _conlangs_ then such statements are ever less likely to be watertight. Ray =============================================== http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown ray.brown@freeuk.com (home) raymond.brown@kingston-college.ac.uk (work) =============================================== "A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760

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Mark P. Line <mark@...>