Re: x > f sound change
|From:||Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>|
|Date:||Friday, September 14, 2001, 17:38|
On Fri, 14 Sep 2001 14:23:29 +0100 Michael Poxon <m.poxon@...>
> No, I don't think the difference is orthographical at all. The
> thing that struck me the first time I heard it (I can remember it -
> it was
> only a few years back) was that it was a wonderful example of
> change in action across many simultaneous fronts: chiefly syntactic
> phonologic. The syntactic stream phonologised as /Sud(schwa)v/ was
> not being analysed as verb+auxiliary, but instead verb+particle or
> preposition, in
> effect, similar to "phone up". Do we now see the auxiliary "have"
> metamorphosing into "of"? Will we be able to say "Of you seen my new
> for instance, or will the change have /-v/ into of /-v/ remain only
> in unstressed positions?
> Mike Poxon-
In my experience, that initial "have" just disappears:
"you seen my car?"
"your revolution isn't worth my life"