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Re: Indicating verbs valence? (Was: The disappeared conlang)

From:Stephen Mulraney <ataltanie@...>
Date:Friday, January 25, 2002, 1:55
On Wed, 23 Jan 2002 17:29:54 -0500
The Gray Wizard <dbell@...> wrote:

> > Perhaps you could have a 'valence' inflection (or particle, or whatever) > > on the verb which specifies how many and what kind of 'arguments' > > the verb takes. I learnt a lot about this kind of thing from David Bell's > > grammar of ámman îar (thanks David!). You can see the kind of valencies > > that his language inflects for at section 7.3 on > > > > rphology.htm > > You might need to read the section at > > > > too, in order to understand the dialect of English used in this grammar ;) >
> "understand the dialect of English used in this grammar"? Hmmm, could it be > that my maladroit elucidations might not have been posed in as luculent a > presentation as might be required? I'll have to work on that. ;-)
Well, I don't think it's such a problem - in fact your descriptions are wonderfully clear, once one has been initiated. Oddly, the experience of understanding certain sentences there felt rather like the experience of reading the proof of a mathematical theorem - a feeling of things slotting in as I read... 'luculent' - that's not quite a cromulent word, is it ? ;)
> > Stay curious, > David


The Gray Wizard <dbell@...>