Re: CHAT: Nonstandard usage (was Natural language change (wasRe:Charlie and I))
|From:||Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, September 29, 1999, 4:24|
Don Blaheta wrote:
> Are there other languages out there where some tense or mood or such
> is only used for certain verbs, leaving the other ones to drop into a
> different tense? Or is that sort of thing usually analysed as two
> tenses, with identical forms except for one verb?
Come to think about it, past tense and past participle are an example in
English, most verbs they're the same (I cooked, I have cooked), but for
some verbs they're different (I saw, I have seen). Do you have that
difference in your idiolect? Do you say "I seen" for perfect, and "I
saw" for past?
Oh Lord, grant that we may always be right, for thou knowest we will
never change our mind. - Scots Prayer
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