Re: CHAT: Nonstandard usage (was Natural language change (wasRe:Charlie and I))

Don Blaheta wrote:
> Are there other languages out there where some tense or mood or such
> is only used for certain verbs, leaving the other ones to drop into a
> different tense?  Or is that sort of thing usually analysed as two
> tenses, with identical forms except for one verb?
Come to think about it, past tense and past participle are an example in
English, most verbs they're the same (I cooked, I have cooked), but for
some verbs they're different (I saw, I have seen).  Do you have that
difference in your idiolect?  Do you say "I seen" for perfect, and "I
saw" for past?

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