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Re: TYPOLOGY: (conlangs and natlangs): "Tense-Prominent" vs "Aspect-Prominent"

From:Eldin Raigmore <eldin_raigmore@...>
Date:Thursday, August 17, 2006, 18:42
---In, Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> wrote:
>Dirk Elzinga wrote: >>Eldin: >>You need to look at this book: >>Bhat, D. N. S. 1999. The prominence of tense, aspect, and mood. >>John Benjamins. ISBN: 155619935X. > >I'd be very interested to know what typological generalizations it >proposes, if you've read it. :)
Based on Dirk's recommendation I have ordered the book; but I haven't seen it yet.
>From "Adjective Classes: A Cross Linguistic Typology"
Who wrote that and where can one get it?
>I know of the following claims regarding stative verbs and verby >adjectives vs nouny adjectives: > >(1) >if a language is head marking, it will have verb-y adjectives >if a language is dependent marking, it will have noun-y adjectives, >or adjectives will form a separate class
I didn't know that.
>(2) >if a language is aspect prominent (to use the terminology of Bhat), >it will have verb-y adjectives if a language is tense prominent, it >will have noun-y adjectives, or adjectives will form a separate class
Is this so? Slavic languages are well-known for being very aspect- prominent (most of them) and not very tense-prominent (most of them). Is their "adjective-neutralization parameter" set to "verb", really? I thought many of them had adjectives as a separate class. But a tendency towards stative verbs and a tendency towards aspect- prominence seem to be correlated; and of course "stative verbs" are a lot like "verby adjectives". I just think Slavic languages -- perhaps unlike some Caucasian and/or Kartvelian languages -- don't tend to be active/stative in morphological alignment, nor to have adjectives "neutralized" as verbs (that is, functioning as stative verbs). I could be wrong; I've only "studied" one Slavic language (Russian), and I can't say I know it (I didn't finish the course). But from what I could see it expressed the same notions English expresses by "adjectives" via a separate class, neither verbs nor nouns, just as English does.
>There thus seems to be a proposed cluster of the features head >marking, aspect prominent, with verb-y adjectives/stative verbs on >the one hand, versus dependent marking, tense prominent, with noun-y >adjectives on the other.
There does? Who proposed it? I've never seen either cluster quite that big before; I've also never seen every pair within either cluster before (that is, each cluster contains a pair I've never seen correlated before).
>Dixon, in the introductory paper of "Adjective Classes",
Haven't read it. Can it be found online?
>claims that (1) seems to hold quite well, although there are >exceptions (eg Korean),
I didn't know that.
>but (2) seems to have rather numerous exceptions. >I haven't read any other proposed typological correlations connected >to mood or evidentiality marking rather than tense or aspect marking.
Thanks. ----- eldin