Re: Ergativity and verbs forms

Doug wrote:

<<
I am at eating the pizza (=I'm eating the pizza)
I am after eating the pizza (=I have eaten the pizza)
I am on eating the pizza (=I'm about to eat the pizza)
I am without eating the pizza (=I haven't eaten the pizza)

My question is: suppose you had constructions like this in a language with
ergative case-marking.  Would "I" be in the ergative case or the absolutive?>>


I think it would depend on the type of verb you have, and then on the 
language.
If it were a verb of placement, like a locative "be", it'd probably always be
absolutive (it being "I").   If you had a catch-all "be" like English, it 
would depend
on how transparent it was.   So, if you get the ergative in "I'm eating the 
pizza",
you'd probably get ergative in "I'm at eating the pizza".   (Well, maybe.)   
If there
was no copula at all, you might get the default case, which would probably be
absolutive.   Interesting idea.

-David
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