Re: Hebrew waw consecutive (was: Beijing, Zhongguo, etc)

David McCann wrote:
> The fast-forward version is that archaic Hebrew had a verbal form in w-
> and later writers assumed that this prefix was the synonymous word
> "and". Thus wayyiktōb "he wrote (perfective)" was taken to be wa "and"
> plus yiktōb "he writes (imperfective)". It looked as if the conjunction
> was switching the aspect of the verb.
Is there some hard evidence for this? As far as I have heard there was no
real foundation behind waw conversive, and I haven't ever seen any proof in
any direction. So I'm 67% non-believer in waw conversive and 33% agnostic,
until I see evidence. Do you have any references about the justification or
reason to assume the theory?

I have'nt got very far in learning Hebrew and thought I should wait with
this question, but since it was brought up...

--
Veoler