From: | Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> |
---|---|
Date: | Tuesday, October 28, 2003, 9:20 |
Quoting Costentin Cornomorus <elemtilas@...>:> Not that we can tell, anyway! It [the subjunctive] is identical to > the indicative apart from the 3s present and the > past of be.I thought the present subjunctive of "to be" was "be" across the board? Andreas
Joe <joe@...> | |
Costentin Cornomorus <elemtilas@...> |