Re: CHAT: Definite/Indefinite Article Distinction
From: | bnathyuw <bnathyuw@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, September 11, 2002, 9:47 |
--- Philip Newton <Philip.Newton@...> wrote: > On
10 Sep 02, at 12:22, bnathyuw wrote:
>
> > use of def art with proper nouns : Greek, German
> > use of def art with abstract nouns : Greek, French
> (
> > does German do this ? )
>
> Does Greek do the second? Are you talking about
> Ancient or Modern
> Greek?
ancient, and i think it's standard in all forms of the
language that use articles ( ie not certain types of
poetry ), tho i can't think of any examples off hand
I think I would say "Prepei na exeis agaph"
> for "You have to
> have love", which has an abstract noun without the
> definite article.
> (Though this could be due to the fact that Greek is
> my L3.)
>
> And does German do the first? Well, it can, but I'd
> say that "Ich gab
> es dem Hans" and "Ich gab es Hans" are both equally
> correct.
that's what i was referring to : the fact german CAN
do it, not that it always does.
as in 'ich bin der Matthew'
'die langwierige Weg in der Wohnung der Natascha
Ungeheuer'
&c
(The forms
> with definite article before proper nouns I'd
> consider more south
> German -- I think that usage is more common there.)
> But Greek
> definitely uses def art before proper nouns.
>
> How about "use of def art with possessive pronouns",
> as Italian does
> ("il mio X" vs, say, Spanish "mi X" and French "mon
> X")?
>
yep. should i be starting a list then ?!
bn
=====
bnathyuw | landan | arR
stamp the sunshine out | angelfish
your tears came like anaesthesia | phèdre
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