Re: CHAT: Definite/Indefinite Article Distinction
From: | Jake X <alwaysawake247@...> |
Date: | Friday, September 6, 2002, 21:53 |
Arthaey,
Not necessarily at all. Articles are a strange beast. I would generalize
(and I'm sure someone will catch me on this, I don't really know enough
Romance languages to make this assumption), that all romance languages which
have a definate article also have an indefinate. The reverse is probably
safer (that indefinate depends on definate), because while with a "the"
word, a language can keep the indefinate unmarked; there is no reason to
distiguish an indefinate without a definate. (For example, a language like
Esperanto would just say "la boato" or "boato," while German says "das Boot"
and "ein Boot" (wait, is Boot das? it's been too long....)
Jake
P.S. Pardon me if I was completely wrong on all counts, this is what I have
been given to think. I'm afraid to sound like a fool when I make it out like
I know something.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Arthaey Angosii" <arthaey@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Friday, September 06, 2002 5:11 PM
Subject: Definite/Indefinite Article Distinction
> Do all languages make a distinction between definite and indefinite
> articles, à la "the" and "a"? Assuming a language uses articles at all,
> that is.
>
>
> --
> Arthaey
>