Re: CHAT: Definite/Indefinite Article Distinction
From: | Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...> |
Date: | Friday, September 6, 2002, 23:01 |
Quoting Arthaey Angosii <arthaey@...>:
> Do all languages make a distinction between definite and indefinite
> articles, à la "the" and "a"? Assuming a language uses articles at all,
> that is.
No. Many languages distinguish only one or the other, and many
distinguish neither obligatorily or overtly. Generally,
if a language distinguishes only one, it marks definiteness, though
there are some (in e.g. Mayan languages) that mark indefinites
overtly, but not definites.
=========================================================================
Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right
University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of
1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter.
Chicago, IL 60637