Re: CHAT: Definite/Indefinite Article Distinction

> She says that 8% is correct (including both definite and
> indefinite articles, but that's not much of a difference
> since most languages -- it seems -- which has a definite
> article has an indefinite but not the other way around).
I am given to think just the opisite-- that some languages that do have
definite articles can leave the indefinate-equivelant unmarked, but that
languages without definate articles would have no reason to mark
indefiniteness (because it would not contrast). Just another example I
thought of for the scenario in natlangs that marks definateness but not
indefiniteness (like Esperanto) is Hebrew, where the heh prefix is
semi-equivalent to "the".

Jake

. . . What sap
Went through that little threat
To make the cherry red!

-Marrianne Moore