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Re: Question Re: Reduplication

From:Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>
Date:Tuesday, September 23, 2003, 18:33
David Peterson wrote:
> > Hi All, > > If you had a language with a pretty standard intervocalic voicing > rule (let's say, /s/ > [z] / V_V), yet you had reduplication, how > would that affect the voicing rule?
Depends on the language. Many reduplicated forms in Japanese, for example, exhibit voicing. Tsuki -> tsukizuki, but not all (of course, voicing isn't mandatory). Of course, in this case, I believe that reduplication is no longer productive, so it's possible that the voicing occurred *after* reduplication ceased to be productive. Dirk Elzinga gave some examples of overapplication, here's one of underapplication: In Japanese, /g/ may optionally be [N] when word-medial. However, ideophones such as _gatagata_ *never* exhibit that [N] pronunciation. Thus, you'd have [gatagata] (underapplication) never *[gataNata] (the normal) or *[NataNata] (overapplication). -- "There's no such thing as 'cool'. Everyone's just a big dork or nerd, you just have to find people who are dorky the same way you are." - overheard ICQ: 18656696 AIM Screen-Name: NikTaylor42