Re: Question Re: Reduplication
|From:||Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, September 23, 2003, 18:33|
David Peterson wrote:
> Hi All,
> If you had a language with a pretty standard intervocalic voicing
> rule (let's say, /s/ > [z] / V_V), yet you had reduplication, how
> would that affect the voicing rule?
Depends on the language. Many reduplicated forms in Japanese, for
example, exhibit voicing. Tsuki -> tsukizuki, but not all (of course,
voicing isn't mandatory). Of course, in this case, I believe that
reduplication is no longer productive, so it's possible that the voicing
occurred *after* reduplication ceased to be productive.
Dirk Elzinga gave some examples of overapplication, here's one of
In Japanese, /g/ may optionally be [N] when word-medial. However,
ideophones such as _gatagata_ *never* exhibit that [N] pronunciation.
Thus, you'd have [gatagata] (underapplication) never *[gataNata] (the
normal) or *[NataNata] (overapplication).
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