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Re: Láadan and woman's speak

From:Robert Hailman <robert@...>
Date:Saturday, May 27, 2000, 0:20
Carlos Thompson wrote:
> > ----- Original Message ----- > From: "Nik Taylor" <fortytwo@...> > To: <CONLANG@...> > Sent: Wednesday, May 24, 2000 11:53 PM > Subject: Re: Láadan and woman's speak > > > Robert Hailman wrote: > > > This is definitely possible, but a society that got rid of it's gender > > > system wouldn't likely adopt a new one. > > If you see gender as a burden, well, they don't. If you see gender as an > expresive need they will eventually evolve some gender system. For example: > objects that can be alienabaly possessed and those that cannot. Things with > plurals and things without plurals. Animates vs. inanimates (inanimates > would seldom inflects in nominative, active or ergative cases). >
I, personally, love gender, but as an English speaker I guess I have some bias against it. I don't think, however, that gender is nescessary to a language, and could easily see a language loosing it, more easily than one gaining it.
> > Why not? We know from records that gender can be lost. Language has > > existed for God knows how long, if gender could only be lost, and not > > gained, then where there'd be no genders in any language on Earth! > > > > > I say simultaniously because I'd imagine the electrical > > > and synthetic distinctions would come in as the male/female > > > disctinctions were lost. > > > > I forget the earlier posts in this thread, but why should there have > > been an earlier gender system? Why not just postulate gender evolving > > from a non-gendered language? > > Well. English has now-a-days and important classification system in its > grammar: count and mass nouns. Count nouns can use singular and plural > determinants like "a" and "some", have a marked plural form (-s), and will > agree, based on number with either "it" or "they". Mass nouns use a subset > of the determinants (no "a"), don't have a plural form (unless it means > kinds of), and only one pronoun. How long until this clasification will > count as a gender system? Which further changes in the grammar would evolve > if the distinction is not lost?
Right, I could see this turning into a gender system, over a period of time? I'm curious, though, do we know if this is a new distinction or a remnant of English's original gender system? If it's a remnant, it could be on it's way to dissapearing also. -- Robert