Re: Tendencies of Sound Changes?
| From: | Larry Sulky <larrysulky@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Thursday, March 30, 2006, 18:46 |
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On 3/30/06, Aidan Grey <taalenmaple@...> wrote:
> It IS the opposite - cf Spanish, English (American 'water'), Welsh....
>
> Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> wrote:
> Quoting Carsten Becker :
>
> > Hello,
> >
> > Some time ago, I saw someone here mentioning that it's more
> > likely for a voiced stop to devoice than for a unvoiced stop
> > to voice.
>
> Really? I would have thought exactly the opposite ...
>
Different languages have different tendencies. Is there a "tendency of
tendencies"? Does one tendency occur more frequently, by language
count or by speaker count, than the other? --larry
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