Re: Tendencies of Sound Changes?
|From:||Larry Sulky <larrysulky@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, March 30, 2006, 18:46|
On 3/30/06, Aidan Grey <taalenmaple@...> wrote:
> It IS the opposite - cf Spanish, English (American 'water'), Welsh....
> Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> wrote:
> Quoting Carsten Becker :
> > Hello,
> > Some time ago, I saw someone here mentioning that it's more
> > likely for a voiced stop to devoice than for a unvoiced stop
> > to voice.
> Really? I would have thought exactly the opposite ...
Different languages have different tendencies. Is there a "tendency of
tendencies"? Does one tendency occur more frequently, by language
count or by speaker count, than the other? --larry