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Re: Tendencies of Sound Changes?

From:Larry Sulky <larrysulky@...>
Date:Thursday, March 30, 2006, 18:46
On 3/30/06, Aidan Grey <taalenmaple@...> wrote:
> It IS the opposite - cf Spanish, English (American 'water'), Welsh.... > > Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> wrote: > Quoting Carsten Becker : > > > Hello, > > > > Some time ago, I saw someone here mentioning that it's more > > likely for a voiced stop to devoice than for a unvoiced stop > > to voice. > > Really? I would have thought exactly the opposite ... >
Different languages have different tendencies. Is there a "tendency of tendencies"? Does one tendency occur more frequently, by language count or by speaker count, than the other? --larry


John Vertical <johnvertical@...>