Re: another language reconstruction question

Christophe Grandsire wrote:
> but those disappeared without a trace when PIE people appeared and
>'invaded' Europe.
Just as later, Latin wiped out most of the languages of Western Europe,
and then broke up.

> Back in times where human population
> could be counted in millions rather than billions, even with smaller
> communities it just seems logical that the count brings fewer languages than
> now!
And especially pre-agriculture, when a group of people would occupy a
rather large area.  When agriculture began to spread, you had people
settling down and moving less often, which would tend to shrink the
average area per language.

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