Re: another language reconstruction question
From: | Andreas Johansson <and_yo@...> |
Date: | Friday, November 1, 2002, 17:07 |
Tim May wrote:
>John Cowan writes:
> > Florian Rivoal scripsit:
> >
> > > How can the case of english in USA, or latin in western europe
> > > be similar to PIE? Those two are conveyed by One single civilisation
>or
> > > empire. the whole area is influence by one culture. Was there such a
> > > Proto-indo-european empire reigning over an area as vast as the whole
> > > indo european area?
> >
> > No. More likely, the PIE-speakers had high technology of some sort
> > (perhaps the horse and war chariot, perhaps bronze metallurgy) that
> > allowed them to dominate their neighbors and spread out. There surely
> > never was a vast Eurasian empire: rather, they moved outward from the
> > point of origin, conquering as they went -- but *not* staying in touch
> > with their relatives who went in other directions.
>
>There go my plans to found a "Campaign for the Reunification of
>Proto-Indo-Europe".
Since when do that kind of ventures need a foundation in actual or even
probable history?
Speaking of the spread of IE langs, searching for "Colin Renfrew" should
introduce you to a theory that IE was rather spread by early farmers than by
warlike western steppe nomads. Less popular, and very probably less likely
(like I could tell!), but interesting nonetheless.
Andreas
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