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Re: THEORY: Tonogenesis (?) from PIE (Was: The rebirth of m"/21aw as mql21aw)

From:Lars Henrik Mathiesen <thorinn@...>
Date:Monday, November 8, 1999, 18:00
> Date: Fri, 5 Nov 1999 18:15:30 +0000 > From: Paul Bennett <Paul.Bennett@...> >=20 > tal>>>>>> > Crash-course, Norwegian tonemes (pardon my stunt-translations): >=20 > [snip] >=20 > SAMPA: > \ - > <b=3DF8nder> /'b2n@r/ "peasants" > /\ / > <b=3DF8nner> /"b2n@r/ "beans" >=20 > <<<<<< >=20 > Are there any defined orthgraphic features (intervocalic cluster of > different/same consonants?) that makes this predictable?
The usual theory about this phenomenon is that it arose back in the late 800's or so, when Old Norse was having a heavy attack of syncopation. A lot of bisyllabic stems were reduced to monosyllables, but retained a 'bisyllabic intonation'. (I haven't seen any attempts at reconstructing exactly what the difference was, however). The point is that since then, the distribution of the two word accents has changed a lot. And the rest of the phonetics has changed as well, independently. So there's not much correlation between the current form of a word and what word accent it gets. There are localized rules in some corners of the lexicon, though --- like that surnames in -sen always have the accent that's called tonelag ett in Norwegian, and st=F8d in Danish. Lars Mathiesen (U of Copenhagen CS Dep) <thorinn@...> (Humour NOT marke= d)