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Re: Bisyllabic or Disyllabic?

From:Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Wednesday, August 9, 2000, 17:51
At 9:35 pm -0400 8/8/00, H. S. Teoh wrote:
>Quick question... what do you call a two-syllable word (or stem)? Is it >bisyllabic or disyllabic? Is there a hyphen in the word or not? > >Thanks... sorry, I'm too lazy to get off the computer to look it up :-)
Certainly no hyphen. The word 'syllable' is ultimately of Greek origin, and ancient Greek had 'disyllabos' = "of two syllables - it even had a verb: disyllabeein = to consist of two syllables! Classical Latin uses only 'disyllabus', keeping the Greek prefix di-. *bisyllabus, using the Latin bi- simply does not occur - it would've sounded like a barbaric mangling of languages! Therefor IMHO 'disyllabic' is the preferred form (indeed, my dictionary does not list *bisyllabic); to me saying 'bisyllabic' would be just as odd as saying *biphthong ;) Ray. ========================================= A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language. [J.G. Hamann 1760] =========================================