>> Elliott Lash wrote:
>> Is it not a rule of Latin grammar that Neuter Plurals
>> can be used with a singular verb, since the -a comes
>> from a collective plural marker....perhaps related to
>> the feminine singular nominative -a.
> Henrik Theiling <theiling@...> wrote:
> No, I just did not pay attention, sorry. I think Greek has the
> type of agreement Elliott describes, but I don't know whether it
> was found in Latin. I should probably correct the line for the
> next post on next Friday then.
I did some googling (it took me a while) but finally found a site
that confirms what Elliott said. My hasty mistake. No need to
correct the line, Henrik.
However, I do wonder if this was an obligatory agreement or if
either singular or plural could be used.
Charlie