Re: Russian names (was: Re: A perfect day...)
From: | BP Jonsson <bpj@...> |
Date: | Friday, February 4, 2000, 12:53 |
At 14:08 +1300 4.2.2000, andrew wrote:
>
>> But, speaking of these forms, I've noticed that many of the languages
>> have similar 2nd plural forms, for instance, Latin _vos_, Russian _vy_,
>> but then we have Anglo-Saxon _ge_, seemingly unrelated. The first
>> person plurals also seem unrelated, _nos_ vs. _we_. Is this connected
>> with the PIE dual/plural distinction, i.e., some descendants used the
>> dual and others the plural?
>>
>I think the nominative form of the 1st person plural was *we and the
>oblique was *nsos. The oblique forms survive in Germanic 1st plural
>object and possessive pronouns.
>
>The rise of the 2nd plural forms in daughter languages I'm not so sure
>of now.
The Germanic and Baltic 2nd plurals in *ju-/*i- are probably cognate to the
demonstrative stem *i-/*jo- found in "yon(der)" and in the relative pronoun
of Sanskrit (yad) and Greek (hos). Sanskrit distinguishes accented forms
in va- and yu- from enclitic nas/vas.
/BP
B.Philip Jonsson <mailto: bpj@...> <mailto: melroch@...>
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~__
Anant' avanaute quettalmar! \ \
__ ____ ____ _____________ ___ __ __ __ / /
\ \/___ \\__ \ /___ _____/\ \\__ \\ \ \ \\ \ / /
/ / / / / \ / /Melroch\ \_/ // / / // / / /
/ /___/ /_ / /\ \ / /Melarocco\_ // /__/ // /__/ /
/_________//_/ \_\/ /Eowine__ / / \___/\_\\___/\_\
I neer Pityancalimeo\ \_____/ /ar/ /_atar Mercasso naan
~~~~~~~~~Cuinondil~~~\_______/~~~\__/~~~Noolendur~~~~~~
|| Lenda lenda pellalenda pellatellenda cuivie aiya! ||
"A coincidence, as we say in Middle-Earth" (JRR Tolkien)