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From:dirk elzinga <dirk.elzinga@...>
Date:Saturday, October 30, 1999, 22:31
On Fri, 29 Oct 1999, Ed Heil wrote:

> I wasn't quite clear from your message... Are you saying that > "asunder" is a pre/postposition or that it isn't? > > At least in my subjective semantic analysis, "asunder" can be > reasonably described either as an adverb or as part of certain verbs > such as "broke," "tore," and "rent." Not as a postposition. > > "He rent his garment asunder/rent asunder his garment." "garment" is > not the object of "asunder," it is the object of "rent." > > Just as in, "He tore his clothes up/tore up his clothes" "clothes" is > not the object of "up," it is the object of "tore." And "up" may be > best described as a detatchable part of the verb "tore." > > Now in "he drove along the road," you cannot say in English "he drove > the road along" -- it's clearly a different beast; a genuine > preposition. > > The preposition-like elements of "tore up his clothes" are clearly > not the same animal as the real prepositions of "he ran up the hill" > -- here, "up the hill" has a distinct meaning, whereas "up his > clothes" has no meaning separate from "tore." > > Again, I'm not clear on your position on this, Dirk, but that's how I > see it.
Oops. I thought that Nik was responding to Tom's German examples, and those were what I was talking about. I agree with you about the English cases of "asunder" and "apart". How embarassing. Dirk -- Dirk Elzinga "All grammars leak." -Edward Sapir