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Re: How to minimize "words" (was "Re: isolating conlangs")

From:Eric Christopherson <rakko@...>
Date:Sunday, February 25, 2007, 1:26
On Feb 22, 2007, at 11:05 PM, Jeff Rollin wrote:

> I'm trying to get rid of pronouns; does anyone know of a language > which uses > no pronouns (not even nouns instead of pronouns, like Japanese) at > all?
Pirahã seems to have recently borrowed all of its pronouns from Nheengatu. I haven't seen anything yet hypothesizing whether they had their own pronouns before that, or how they otherwise referred to people and things. One idea worth considering, I think, is using locatives like "here:there:over there"... but if you use those, they will become de facto pronouns, which kind of defeats the point of not using pronouns in the first place. [...]
> Gender/noun-class: I'm trying to move beyond the traditional > masculine/feminine(/neuter) gender distinction into a Bantu-inspired > noun-class system for things like professionals, one for languages, > and one > for inhabitants ( e.g. as if one said "the wise-r bak-er", "the > passionate-an Itali-an", "broken-ish Engl-ish". Has anyone designed a > language like this? What do you do about the alternation between > roots/suffixes ending/beginning in a consonant or a vowel?
What about the alternation? As I read it, your language doesn't have a restriction against medial CC; does it have one against VV? Otherwise, I don't see this as a problem (although it might make for some interesting sandhi). [...]
> 5. Palatalised consonants, even in the face of words like "atja" / > atja/ > (bird) are easy, since the Roman alphabet has both j and y, which > can be > used for either palatalisation or a [j] phoneme, and "j" is not > used for > anything else (such as Z, the "s" in "pleasure"). However, > combinations such > as "nyk" and even "nyj" are ugly and are apt to be pronounced by > English > speakers as "nick" and "nidge" anyway - any thoughts? (Perhaps > palatalised > consonants in clusters (and at the end of words) should be denoted > by -j- > instead of -y-?)
You could use an apostrophe, if you're not opposed to punctuation.
> 6. Labialised and aspirated consonants also present a problem, > since the > language can have both aspirated "t" and "t" followed by "h" (and > other > combinations), and the Roman alphabet has no variations on h or w > analogous > to the j/y split. Any suggestions? (Maybe I could make a rule that, > say, > "lh" represents aspirated /lh/ and that an /l/ followed by a > ("full") /h/ => > "lk"?)
<lk> for /lh/ seems a little strange, IMO. Does the sequence /lk/ not occur? On Feb 22, 2007, at 11:05 PM, Jeff Rollin wrote:
> PS As an aside: I've talked about palatalised, prenasalised, > labialised, and > aspirated consonants; Wikipedia reports that there are also > languages which > have post-nasalised (bn) and pre- and post-stopped nasals (pn, mp). > I'm not > aware of any language that uses pre-palatalised or pre-labialised > consonants. Anyone?
Palatalization and labialization, as I understand it, are usually to be understood as occurring *simultaneous* to whatever other gestures a consonant involves; however, I believe I have heard of prepalatalization vs. postpalatalization (but I don't have any sources to cite). In any case, I use prepalatalization in a conlang, although in later forms of that language it shifts to regular palatalization. I believe there are probably phonetic reasons nasalization differs from e.g. labialization and palatalization, in that in occurs before or after consonants, but not necessarily simultaneously with them; someone who has actually studied phonetics should correct me, but I think that if you pronounce e.g. a [b]-like phone with simultaneous nasalization, the result is [m], not a prenasalized [b] (which I am unsure how to show in XSAMPA).
> Also, are there any languages that use pre-fricativized > consonants? > > I.e., given a language in which "pam" could be a word, but not "pram" > (because of a restriction on consonant clusters in initial > position) are > languages any words in which "spam" could be a word, despite the > aforementioned restriction, due to pre-fricativized consonants?
As I understand it, Gaelic has sequences of fricative+stop which (I think) can be considered as single units, at least orthographically; I am not sure about whether they are so phonologically or phonetically. They are homorganic, though, so [st] could occur, but not [sp]. You might also want to consider preaspiration, especially since you like Finnish anyway.

Replies

Jeff Rollin <jeff.rollin@...>
Eric Christopherson <rakko@...>