Re: USAGE: USAGE north-west IE diffusion (Re: USAGE:Yet another few questions about Welsh.)

Quoting Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>:

> What I find a little strange is that none of the ancient authors ever
> refer to the inhabitants of Britain or Ireland as Celts; yet the ancient
> Romans & Greek had first hand encounters with actual Celts in mainland
> Europe.
I'm under the impression the ethnoym "Belgae" was used for groups on both sides
of the Channel, tho. Is this correct?

> So, I have a few questions   :)
> 1. Is there any actual evidence of the language of those people the Romans
> called 'Celtae' & the Greeks called 'Keltai'?
Exactly whom did the Ancients include in these terms? In particular, did they
include the Gauls?

The point being, I guess, that I've got no idea whether the _Celtae_ was thought
of as a linguistically defined group.

                                                   Andreas

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