Re: Nitpicking, and some political theory
| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, October 18, 2004, 13:59 |
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On Mon, Oct 18, 2004 at 01:05:39AM -0500, Thomas R. Wier wrote:
> From: Muke Tever <hotblack@...>
> Subject: Re: re Periphrases? Re Re Question about Latin.
>
> > > what's a periphrase?
> >
> > The singular of "periphrases" is "periphrasis".
>
> Except for most English speakers, for whom the paradigm goes
> "periphrase : periphrases".
No, I don't believe that's true. Most English speakers don't have
"periphras[ei]s" in their vocabulary at all; they use the word
"paraphrase", normally as a verb, but sometimes as a noun. For those
who do have "periphrases" in their vocabularly, it is the plural of
"periphrasis".
-Marcos