Re: THEORY: Xpositions in Ypositional languages {X,Y}={pre,post}
From: | Henrik Theiling <theiling@...> |
Date: | Monday, September 24, 2007, 19:54 |
Hi!
Roger Mills writes:
> Henrik Theiling wrote:
>
> > Andreas Johansson writes:
> >> >...
> >> > Eu falarei - I will speak
> >> > Eu falar-lhe-ei - I will speak to him.
> >>
> >> Cool. However, an alternate analysis suggests itself: unlike in
> >> other Romance
> >> languages, the reflex of 'habere' HASN'T become an ending, but remains a
> >> quasi-independent cliticized verb, the proof being the very fact
> >> that it does
> >> allow other clitics between it and the infinitive. Are there good
> >> reasons to
> >> reject this?
> >
> > I'm quite very sure there are, but since I don't know exactly how
> > Portuguese behaves here, I hope someone else can provide the reasons.
> >
> I'm not up on the intricacies of Portuguese verbs, but I wonder what
> happens in those cases where the future tense uses a modified stem
> instead of the regular infinitive? Generally, the same verbs as in
> Spanish... Thus Span. hacer > haré, I'd suspect Port. has fazer >
> farei (???)-- then what happens if you insert a pronoun clitic?
It seems you are right about fazer - farei. Google finds >800 instances
of 'far-lhe-ei' and the Wikibooks entry
http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Portuguese/Contents/Future_tense_regular_verbs
Does not indicate any special treatment of 'fazer' in future tense +
object pronouns.
**Henrik