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Re: Sound Change /bs/ > /f/ ?

From:Dirk Elzinga <dirk.elzinga@...>
Date:Wednesday, January 17, 2007, 20:13
On 1/17/07, Santiago Matías Feldman <iskun20@...> wrote:
> Hi all, > > As the title suggests, my question is: Do you know if > the sound change /bs/ > /f/ exists in any context? > > Especially, I'm interested in the context of /bs/ > before another consonant.
I think the change is reasonable, but I think there is room to quibble with what you are assuming as the input to the rule. You have /bs/, but it is equally likely that it is /βs/. So it goes like this: (bs > ) βs > ɸs > ɸ / f
> I'm asking this because I've noticed that my mother, > being an educated speaker, tends to produce a /f/ > instead of /bs/ in words like "obstáculo" and > "abstracto", which gives her Spanish language a very > odd touch when pronouncing that kind of words, > creating very rare clusters like /ft/.
I just asked a colleague who works in Spanish phonology and morphology, and he finds that a very understandable pronunciation. He also offered [apstrakto], [ahstrakto], [awstrakto], and [astrakto] as alternatives. Apparently all kinds of weird things happen to clusters in learned borrowings in Spanish. Dirk