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Re: phonetic

From:# 1 <salut_vous_autre@...>
Date:Saturday, May 28, 2005, 1:19
(I use [-] and not /-/ in this post because I wanna talk of phonetic without
the phonemic uses)

This is a question concerning the phonetic use of [e]

I often meet that problem in my conlangs

Is the sound [e] really possible to say before a consonant at the end of a

If I say [ke] or [keke] it is easy but to pronounce only [kek] seems
incomplete in my mouth... there must be another sound to go after the

And I feel the same thing with all the mid-close vowels like [o] or [2]

In French or Spanish, such a sound combinaison can't occur because it will
be replaced by its mid-open phenemicly equivalent [E], [9], [O]

It is easy to prove in Spanish on any noun ending with "e" or "o" in a
singular-plural opposition

Like, "el cono" [kono] but "los conos" /konOs/, "el lado" [lado] but "los
lados" [ladOs]

Is it only the fact that I don't speak a language wich such a combinaison of
sounds might occur in that makes I can't say it? Only because I'm not used
to it?

I'd want to know because I always have that problem like now in Vbazi, I
have the dual/paucal/plural suffixes that are only of one consonant but that
I have to add at the end of words ending in /e/ (the only mid-close vowel)
considering the fact that /E/ is phonemicly different and can't be used as a

I tought using something else like /@/ or the diphtong /e@/ for replacement
since they are not used, but I'd like to keep my vocalic inventory closed so
that's why I want to ask if that restriction is something real in the
language world or if it is only a caracteristic of the languages I speak, or
worse, If that restriction doesn't exist and is only a phonetic illusion I
think being hearing to.

Thank in advance
- Max


Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>