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Re: terminology: prepositions, postpositions, and...

From:David J. Peterson <dedalvs@...>
Date:Sunday, November 4, 2007, 4:31
Eric wrote:
I don't think that counts as an infix under most definitions, because
it occurs between one morpheme (_urs-_) and another (_-a_), rather
than right inside one morpheme. However, there are some who think
that the diminutive _-it-_ in Spanish is an infix. I don't know what
the evidence in favor of that is, other than _azúcar_ + _-it-_
yielding _azuquítar_. It's been discussed on the list before.

Carlos > Carlitos is a better example.  This forces one of two

(1) There are *two* affixes: /-it/, a suffix, and /-it-/, and infix,
that are otherwise identical.  What conditions their allomorphy
is anyone's guess.

(2) A morpheme-based analysis is flawed, at best.

I prefer analysis (2).

"sunly eleSkarez ygralleryf ydZZixelje je ox2mejze."
"No eternal reward will forgive us now for wasting the dawn."

-Jim Morrison