Re: terminology: prepositions, postpositions, and...
| From: | David J. Peterson <dedalvs@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, November 4, 2007, 4:31 |
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Eric wrote:
<<
I don't think that counts as an infix under most definitions, because
it occurs between one morpheme (_urs-_) and another (_-a_), rather
than right inside one morpheme. However, there are some who think
that the diminutive _-it-_ in Spanish is an infix. I don't know what
the evidence in favor of that is, other than _azúcar_ + _-it-_
yielding _azuquítar_. It's been discussed on the list before.
>>
Carlos > Carlitos is a better example. This forces one of two
analyses:
(1) There are *two* affixes: /-it/, a suffix, and /-it-/, and infix,
that are otherwise identical. What conditions their allomorphy
is anyone's guess.
(2) A morpheme-based analysis is flawed, at best.
I prefer analysis (2).
-David
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