Re: Phonology-Realistic?
| From: | vehke <vaksje@...> |
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| Date: | Wednesday, October 20, 2004, 10:30 |
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On Wed, Oct 20, 2004 at 05:20:39AM -0400, Yann Kiraly wrote:
> Thanks for the reply! Would the justification, that f->v and z replaced s
> in some words, be satisfying?
Yes, I would say so. If you want, you could work out the exact
conditions in which these sound changes take place. For example, /s/
becomes [z] between vowels (intervocally), and stays [s] elsewhere.
I'm sure it's possible to justify the complete loss of [f] by stating
that /f/ simply shifted to [v] in *all* positions, whereas the shift
[s] -> [z] was halted half-way.
There are many ways to justify these changes, e.g. influence from a
(hypothetical) neighboring language, random dialectal variations,
etc.
--
vehke.
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