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Re: Hebrew and Conlangs

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Friday, February 28, 2003, 14:16
On Fri, 28 Feb 2003 11:47:42 +1300 Wesley Parish
<wes.parish@...> writes:
> His point was that "gazlan" had the |-an| agent noun termination of > Yiddish, > while "gavan" - if I have remembered the word correctly - was in the > CaCaC > agent noun form of Biblical/Classical Hebrew. He argued that the > |-an| agent > noun form was the standard for of Modern Hebrew, and again, I must > confess, I > have very little knowledge of Modern Hebrew, so I refuse to comment > either way.
- Both CaCCân (as in |gazlan|) and CaC²âC (as in |ganav|) are native Hebrew agent noun forms. Unless CaCCân is Aramaic, that is... but in either case, it's not Yiddish. Yiddish generally uses |-er|. Both patterns are used for new words: CaCCân is used in, for instance, |hhamtzan| "oxygen" CaC²âC is used in, for instance, |davar| "mailman"
> Actually sooner, if what we read in the books of `Ezra and Nehemyahu > are > anything to go by. Aramaic was growing in use among the returnees > from > Babylon and that was deeply resented by some of the senior priests > and > officials. Certainly, if we look at the Christian Bible, we find > that one > Iesu of Nazareth used Aramaic - "Tabitha koum" - "little girl, get > up."
- If i remember correctly, around the non-year 0, Aramaic was the native language of most Jews in the Galilee; but those in Judea itself still mostly spoke Hebrew. In fact, recently my Medieval Spaniard Hebrew Poetry teacher told me about a theory someone has that the distinctive syntax and vocabulary of the classical Piyyut literature (c.800s CE) may be due to Hebrew still being a living spoken language at that time. -Stephen (Steg) "armu>"